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Implementing Cisco Unity Connection
Exam Number:642-262
Associated Certifications: Cisco Unity Support Specialist
Duration: 75 minutes 45-55 questions
Available Languages: English and Japanese
Exam Description
The 642-262 IUC Implementing the Cisco Unity Connection exam is the exam associated with the Implementing the Cisco Unity Server certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of the Cisco Unity Connection and it's installation and customization. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the IUC Implementing the Cisco Unity Connection.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Cisco Unity Connection platforms, licensing and deployment models
Cisco Unity Connection installation
Cisco Unity Connection phone system integration
Cisco Unity Connection COBRAS
Preparing Cisco Unity Connection for users
Managing Cisco Unity Connection users
Exam : Cisco 642-262
Title : Implementing Cisco Unity Connection
1. Which database engine is used in Cisco Unity Connection?
Select the best response.
A. PostgreSQL
B. MySQL
C. Informix
D. SQL Server
Answer: C
2. What is the maximum number of supported ports for a single-server implementation using Platform
Overlay 2?
Select the best response.
A. 16
B. 48
C. 96
D. 144
Answer: C
3. What are the minimum system requirements to install Cisco Unity Connection?
Select the best response.
A. 1-GHz processor, 1-GB RAM, 80-GB hard disk
B. 2-GHz processor, 2-GB RAM, 80-GB hard disk
C. 2-GHz processor, 2-GB RAM, 160-GB hard disk
D. 3-GHz processor, 4-GB RAM, 160-GB hard disk
Answer: B
4. How many phones and mailboxes may be supported with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Business Edition?
Select the best response.
A. 225 phones, 250 mailboxes
B. 575 phones, 500 mailboxes
C. 700 phones, 750 mailboxes
D. 1250 phones, 1000 mailboxes
Answer: B
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2011年1月29日 星期六
642-384 Practice Exam
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642-384 Exam
Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers(CXFF)
Exam Number/Code : 642-384
Exam Name : Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers(CXFF)
Questions and Answers : 70 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-11-30
Exam : Cisco Certification 642-384
Title : Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
1.Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when
implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points
through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number, followed by MAC address
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address
Answer: BD
2. Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business Communications
System?
A. C2950
B. C3750
C. ESW 500
D. SRW224G4
Answer: C
3. In which of these phase is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer: A
4. What are two ways to secure traffic across a network? (Choose two)
A. Cisco ISR G2
B. Identify-management devices
C. ACLs
D. Firewalls
E. VPN connection
F. VLANs
Answer: DE
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642-384 Exam
Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers(CXFF)
Exam Number/Code : 642-384
Exam Name : Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers(CXFF)
Questions and Answers : 70 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-11-30
Exam : Cisco Certification 642-384
Title : Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
1.Which two statements best describe the wireless core feature set using autonomous access points when
implementing Wireless Domain Services? (Choose two)
A. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is configured via the infrastructure access point GUI
B. The primary Layer 2 WDS server address is automatically discovered by the infrastructure access points
through multicast
C. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest MAC address, followed by priority number
D. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest priority number, followed by MAC address
E. The primary Layer 2 WDS is selected by the highest IP address, followed by MAC address
Answer: BD
2. Which companion switch is recommended to be installed with Cisco Smart Business Communications
System?
A. C2950
B. C3750
C. ESW 500
D. SRW224G4
Answer: C
3. In which of these phase is a customer’s current network infrastructure assessed?
A. plan
B. design
C. implement
D. prepare
Answer: A
4. What are two ways to secure traffic across a network? (Choose two)
A. Cisco ISR G2
B. Identify-management devices
C. ACLs
D. Firewalls
E. VPN connection
F. VLANs
Answer: DE
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S10-101 test
S10-101 Exam
SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
Exam Number/Code : S10-101
Exam Name : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-30
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Exam : SNIA S10-101
Title : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
1. Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C
2. Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Answer: A
3. What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Answer: A
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SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
Exam Number/Code : S10-101
Exam Name : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-30
The SNIA Certification S10-101 study materials from Testinside is all you will need to gain practical hands-on experience with actual Lab exercises including the concepts and objectives outlined by the vendors themselves. Although the S10-101 study materials is very popular, we offer a wide range of study materials and will continue to release new study guides to meet the rapidly increasing demand of the IT industry.
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Exam : SNIA S10-101
Title : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
1. Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C
2. Common enterprise tape cartridges such as LTO or DLT contain which components?
A. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, access door
B. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, access door
C. leader pin, write protect switch, supply reel, pickup reel
D. leader pin, read/write head assembly, supply reel, pickup reel
Answer: A
3. What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Answer: A
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LX0-101 Exam
CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1
Exam Number/Code : LX0-101
Exam Name : CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1
Questions and Answers : 104 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-30
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Exam Number/Code : LX0-101
Exam Name : CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1
Questions and Answers : 104 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-30
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Exam Number/Code : LX0-102
Exam Name : CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 2
Questions and Answers : 117 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-30
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Exam Number/Code : LX0-102
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2011年1月28日 星期五
HP0-085 braindump
HP0-085 Exam
Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions
Exam Number/Code : HP0-085
Exam Name : Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions
Questions and Answers : 70 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
Exam : HP HP0-085
Title : Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions
1. What are three components of an HP Superdome High Level Design (HLD)? (Select three.)
A. Visio drawings
B. budgetary quote
C. Solution Implementation Plan (SIP)
D. Solution Integration Service Plan (SISP)
E. Site Environment Readiness Review (SERR)
Answer: ABE
2. Which component coordinates memory access between sx1000 cell boards within the same hard
partition (nPAR)?
A. XPC chip
B. mx2 module
C. SerDes Chip
D. cell controller chip
Answer: D
3. What can be used to set the memory allocation for cell local memory? (Select two.)
A. parmgr utility
B. partition magic utility
C. nPartition commands
D. process resources manager
Answer: AC
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Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions
Exam Number/Code : HP0-085
Exam Name : Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions
Questions and Answers : 70 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
Exam : HP HP0-085
Title : Planning and Desiging HP Superdome Server Solutions
1. What are three components of an HP Superdome High Level Design (HLD)? (Select three.)
A. Visio drawings
B. budgetary quote
C. Solution Implementation Plan (SIP)
D. Solution Integration Service Plan (SISP)
E. Site Environment Readiness Review (SERR)
Answer: ABE
2. Which component coordinates memory access between sx1000 cell boards within the same hard
partition (nPAR)?
A. XPC chip
B. mx2 module
C. SerDes Chip
D. cell controller chip
Answer: D
3. What can be used to set the memory allocation for cell local memory? (Select two.)
A. parmgr utility
B. partition magic utility
C. nPartition commands
D. process resources manager
Answer: AC
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Exam : HP HP0-J33
Title : Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions
Course objectives:
Upon completion of this course, students should be able to:
Identify the terminology used with the EVA and virtual storage.
Identify the physical, management, and interconnect functions of the HSV controllers, Management Module, disk drive enclosures, FC-AL drives, and Fibre Channel loop switch.
Locate EVA storage system hardware, and set up and operate components of the HSV controller and disk drive enclosure.Use the Management Module and its web-based OCP (WOCP) to access storage system management functions.
Connect to the Fibre Channel loop switch and use its available interfaces to perform basic functions.
Describe the rack models, power cabling, and cabling configurations for all models.
Describe the features and functions of the initial storage and host configuration software called HP SmartStart for EVA Storage.Use HP SmartStart for EVA Storage to initially configure storage and hosts for the EVA4400.
1. What are features of FATA disk technology? (Select two.)
A. extensive command queuing
B. greater than 80% duty cycle
C. no native Fibre Channel interface on FATA disks
D. same capacity at similar cost as Fibre Channel SCSI disks
E. designed for 24 by 7 availability
Answer: AE
2. What is the best description of virtual disk leveling?
A. distributes all user data proportionally across all spindles within a virtual disk
B. subgroups drives within a disk group to allow failure separation
C. distributes all user data proportionally across all spindles within a disk group
D. allocates space per disk group to recover from physical disk failure in that group
Answer: C
3. What has the highest influence on EVA LUN performance?
A. largest disk in the EVA
B. number of disks in the disk group
C. slowest disk in the disk group
D. number of disks in the EVA
Answer: B
4. Which statement is true about EVA6400/8400 firmware and online updates?
A. The resync of controllers is staggered.
B. After the update, firmware reloads metadata from the disk.
C. An in-memory image of virtual disk metadata is preserved.
D. Firmware is updated on one controller and copied to the second.
Answer: C
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Title : Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions
Course objectives:
Upon completion of this course, students should be able to:
Identify the terminology used with the EVA and virtual storage.
Identify the physical, management, and interconnect functions of the HSV controllers, Management Module, disk drive enclosures, FC-AL drives, and Fibre Channel loop switch.
Locate EVA storage system hardware, and set up and operate components of the HSV controller and disk drive enclosure.Use the Management Module and its web-based OCP (WOCP) to access storage system management functions.
Connect to the Fibre Channel loop switch and use its available interfaces to perform basic functions.
Describe the rack models, power cabling, and cabling configurations for all models.
Describe the features and functions of the initial storage and host configuration software called HP SmartStart for EVA Storage.Use HP SmartStart for EVA Storage to initially configure storage and hosts for the EVA4400.
1. What are features of FATA disk technology? (Select two.)
A. extensive command queuing
B. greater than 80% duty cycle
C. no native Fibre Channel interface on FATA disks
D. same capacity at similar cost as Fibre Channel SCSI disks
E. designed for 24 by 7 availability
Answer: AE
2. What is the best description of virtual disk leveling?
A. distributes all user data proportionally across all spindles within a virtual disk
B. subgroups drives within a disk group to allow failure separation
C. distributes all user data proportionally across all spindles within a disk group
D. allocates space per disk group to recover from physical disk failure in that group
Answer: C
3. What has the highest influence on EVA LUN performance?
A. largest disk in the EVA
B. number of disks in the disk group
C. slowest disk in the disk group
D. number of disks in the EVA
Answer: B
4. Which statement is true about EVA6400/8400 firmware and online updates?
A. The resync of controllers is staggered.
B. After the update, firmware reloads metadata from the disk.
C. An in-memory image of virtual disk metadata is preserved.
D. Firmware is updated on one controller and copied to the second.
Answer: C
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Exam Number/Code : 1D0-570
Exam Name : CIW v5 Security Professional Exam
Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
Exam :CIW Certification 1D0-570
Title : CIW V5 Security Professional Exam
1. Which of the following is responsible for encrypting the data packets encapsulated in an SSL-enabled
HTTP session?
A. One-way encryption
B. One-time pad (OTP)
C. Symmetric-key encryption
D. Asymmetric-key encryption
Answer: C
2. You have used an application called PGP to protect the contents of an e-mail message. Which
technology is used to encrypt the key that protects the data in the e-mail message?
A. Symmetric-key encryption
B. Asymmetric-key encryption
C. Diffie-Hellman key exchange protocol
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Answer: B
3. Your Web browser issued a warning message that a certificate has not been signed by a recognized
authority. This fact indicates that:
A. an attack is in progress.
B. the ensuing session will not be encrypted.
C. the Certificate Authority (CA) has revoked the certificate.
D. the browser does not recognize the Certificate Authority (CA).
Answer: D
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1D0-570 Exam
CIW v5 Security Professional Exam
Exam Number/Code : 1D0-570
Exam Name : CIW v5 Security Professional Exam
Questions and Answers : 120 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
Exam :CIW Certification 1D0-570
Title : CIW V5 Security Professional Exam
1. Which of the following is responsible for encrypting the data packets encapsulated in an SSL-enabled
HTTP session?
A. One-way encryption
B. One-time pad (OTP)
C. Symmetric-key encryption
D. Asymmetric-key encryption
Answer: C
2. You have used an application called PGP to protect the contents of an e-mail message. Which
technology is used to encrypt the key that protects the data in the e-mail message?
A. Symmetric-key encryption
B. Asymmetric-key encryption
C. Diffie-Hellman key exchange protocol
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Answer: B
3. Your Web browser issued a warning message that a certificate has not been signed by a recognized
authority. This fact indicates that:
A. an attack is in progress.
B. the ensuing session will not be encrypted.
C. the Certificate Authority (CA) has revoked the certificate.
D. the browser does not recognize the Certificate Authority (CA).
Answer: D
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1Y0-456 Exam
Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Build/Test
Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-456
Exam Name : Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Build/Test
Questions and Answers : 39 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
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1Y0-456 Exam
Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Build/Test
Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-456
Exam Name : Citrix Access Suite 4.0: Build/Test
Questions and Answers : 39 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
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1Y0-A06 Exam
Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-A06
Exam Name : Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
Exam : Citrix 1Y0-A06
Title : Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
1. Scenario: An administrator completed the vDisk creation process as well as the creation of several target
devices. The administrator took the necessary steps for Active Directory integration including enabling
Active Directory machine account password management for the vDisk and enabling automatic password
support for the server. The administrator also made sure that the Master Target Device was added to the
correct domain. However, the administrator is unable to log on to the domain from any of the target devices
when attempting to stream the vDisk. Which step should the administrator take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Verify that the vDisk is in standard image mode
B. Reset all the machine accounts in Active Directory
C. Create a machine account for each target device in Active Directory
D. Run the Image Optimization Wizard and deselect the disable machine account password changes
option
Answer: C
2. How can the administrator set the level of diagnostic information collected for a Provisioning Server
environment to errors only?
A. Set the Stream Service to debug level 2
B. Set the Stream Console to debug level 1
C. Set the MCLI_LOG.CONFIG file to debug level 4
D. Set the ENTERPRISEACCESS_LOG.CONFIG file to debug level 3
Answer: B
3. Scenario: An administrator has created a dynamic vDisk and assigned it to a target device. When PXE
booting the target device, the following error message appears:
vDisk is locked
Why is the administrator receiving this error message?
A. The vDisk is in standard image mode
B. The administrator failed to format the vDisk
C. The administrator failed to unmount the vDisk
D. The vDisk does NOT have enough space allocated
Answer: C
4. When preparing to build a vDisk image from a Master Target Device, which boot option should an
administrator select in the target device properties?
A. vDisk
B. Hard Disk
C. Floppy Disk
D. local HD as a boot device
Answer: B
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1Y0-A06 Exam
Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-A06
Exam Name : Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-29
Exam : Citrix 1Y0-A06
Title : Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
1. Scenario: An administrator completed the vDisk creation process as well as the creation of several target
devices. The administrator took the necessary steps for Active Directory integration including enabling
Active Directory machine account password management for the vDisk and enabling automatic password
support for the server. The administrator also made sure that the Master Target Device was added to the
correct domain. However, the administrator is unable to log on to the domain from any of the target devices
when attempting to stream the vDisk. Which step should the administrator take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Verify that the vDisk is in standard image mode
B. Reset all the machine accounts in Active Directory
C. Create a machine account for each target device in Active Directory
D. Run the Image Optimization Wizard and deselect the disable machine account password changes
option
Answer: C
2. How can the administrator set the level of diagnostic information collected for a Provisioning Server
environment to errors only?
A. Set the Stream Service to debug level 2
B. Set the Stream Console to debug level 1
C. Set the MCLI_LOG.CONFIG file to debug level 4
D. Set the ENTERPRISEACCESS_LOG.CONFIG file to debug level 3
Answer: B
3. Scenario: An administrator has created a dynamic vDisk and assigned it to a target device. When PXE
booting the target device, the following error message appears:
vDisk is locked
Why is the administrator receiving this error message?
A. The vDisk is in standard image mode
B. The administrator failed to format the vDisk
C. The administrator failed to unmount the vDisk
D. The vDisk does NOT have enough space allocated
Answer: C
4. When preparing to build a vDisk image from a Master Target Device, which boot option should an
administrator select in the target device properties?
A. vDisk
B. Hard Disk
C. Floppy Disk
D. local HD as a boot device
Answer: B
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2011年1月27日 星期四
642-436 PDF
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Cisco Voice over IP
Exam Number:642-436
Associated Certifications: CCVP
Duration: 75 minutes (60 - 70 questions)
Available Languages: English and Japanese
Exam Description
The 642-436 CVOICE Cisco Voice over IP is the exam associated with the CCVP certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of the foundational elements of VOIP calls, and the description of dial plans, and the implementation of gateways, gatekeepers and IP-IP gateways. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the CVOICE Cisco Voice over IP course.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the components of a gateway
Describe the function of gateways
Describe DSP functionality
Describe the different types of voice ports and their usage
Describe dial peer types
Describe codecs and codec complexity
Describe a dial plan
Describe a numbering plan
Describe digit manipulation
Describe path selection
Describe calling privileges
Describe call coverage
Exam : Cisco 642-436
Title : Cisco Voice over IP (CVOICE)
1. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge the existing PBX network with the IP network. The three
remote offices have various types of PBXs. The customer is using a combination of tie-lines and trunks to connect the
PBXs today.
Which kind of connection should be implemented to allow calls to be placed from 201-555-1000 to 727-555-1000 so
that when the call is completed, network resources are returned for other uses?
A. PLAR
B. trunk
C. tie-line
D. answer-mode
Answer: C
2. Which path selection mechanism lets you choose either the even or odd channels first?
A. hunt groups
B. trunk groups
C. tailend hopoff
D. Call Admission Control
Answer: B
3. Refer to the exhibit.
Lighthorse Equine Management would like to investigate converging voice and data on their existing T1 Frame Relay
WAN link between New York and Atlanta. Currently the following list of applications are consuming no more
bandwidth than what is listed on this segment of the network.
T1 link 1536 kbps
e-mail 75 kbps
internet 200 kbps
Oracle 500 kbps
FTP 250 kbps
Total 1025 kbps
The customer has allocated 25% of the WAN link for routing updates and other overhead. They would like to increase
the number of samples encapsulated in each PDU to 40 ms. You have calculated 6 bytes of overhead for Frame
Relay, no cRTP, and the use of the G.711 codec.
How many simultaneous calls could be placed on this link?
A. 0 calls
B. 1 call
C. 2 calls
D. no more than 5 calls
E. no more than 10 calls
F. no more than 20 calls
Answer: B
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Cisco Voice over IP
Exam Number:642-436
Associated Certifications: CCVP
Duration: 75 minutes (60 - 70 questions)
Available Languages: English and Japanese
Exam Description
The 642-436 CVOICE Cisco Voice over IP is the exam associated with the CCVP certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of the foundational elements of VOIP calls, and the description of dial plans, and the implementation of gateways, gatekeepers and IP-IP gateways. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the CVOICE Cisco Voice over IP course.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the components of a gateway
Describe the function of gateways
Describe DSP functionality
Describe the different types of voice ports and their usage
Describe dial peer types
Describe codecs and codec complexity
Describe a dial plan
Describe a numbering plan
Describe digit manipulation
Describe path selection
Describe calling privileges
Describe call coverage
Exam : Cisco 642-436
Title : Cisco Voice over IP (CVOICE)
1. Refer to the exhibit. Your customer wants to converge the existing PBX network with the IP network. The three
remote offices have various types of PBXs. The customer is using a combination of tie-lines and trunks to connect the
PBXs today.
Which kind of connection should be implemented to allow calls to be placed from 201-555-1000 to 727-555-1000 so
that when the call is completed, network resources are returned for other uses?
A. PLAR
B. trunk
C. tie-line
D. answer-mode
Answer: C
2. Which path selection mechanism lets you choose either the even or odd channels first?
A. hunt groups
B. trunk groups
C. tailend hopoff
D. Call Admission Control
Answer: B
3. Refer to the exhibit.
Lighthorse Equine Management would like to investigate converging voice and data on their existing T1 Frame Relay
WAN link between New York and Atlanta. Currently the following list of applications are consuming no more
bandwidth than what is listed on this segment of the network.
T1 link 1536 kbps
e-mail 75 kbps
internet 200 kbps
Oracle 500 kbps
FTP 250 kbps
Total 1025 kbps
The customer has allocated 25% of the WAN link for routing updates and other overhead. They would like to increase
the number of samples encapsulated in each PDU to 40 ms. You have calculated 6 bytes of overhead for Frame
Relay, no cRTP, and the use of the G.711 codec.
How many simultaneous calls could be placed on this link?
A. 0 calls
B. 1 call
C. 2 calls
D. no more than 5 calls
E. no more than 10 calls
F. no more than 20 calls
Answer: B
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642-583 study guide
Security Solutions for Systems Engineers
Exam Number:642-583
Associated Certifications: Cisco Security Solutions and Design Specialist
Duration: 60 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English
Exam Description
The 642-583 SSSE exam tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco security products and product positioning and where each technology fits in the design of an integrated, collaborative, secure network. Topics covered include Cisco Security Appliance (ASA), ASA, IDS/IPS, VPN, Security Management, CS-MARS, NAC Appliance, Cisco Ironport and Scansafe web security.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Security Solutions for System Engineers exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the threat landscape and goals of security engineering
Describe basic risk management principles and approaches
Describe the general types of attacks (e.g. physical, network infrastructure, systems, applications, and user)
Identify modern security controls and relate them to modern threats
Describe different types of available security controls (e.g. application, system, network, access, cryptographic)
Describe Cisco specific security controls and the threats they mitigate
Exam : Cisco 642-583
Title : Security Solutions for Systems Engineers
1. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching (FPM) is an example of which kind of network security technology?
A. Layer 37 stateless packet filter
B. stateful Layer 7 (application) firewall
C. deep packet inspection (DPI) firewall
D. stateful packet inspection
E. proxy firewall
F. IPS
Answer: A
2. Cisco SSL VPN solution uses the Cisco Secure Desktop to provide which four functionalities? (Choose
four.)
A. pre-login assessment
B. application plug-ins
C. secure vault
D. Cache Cleaner
E. Advanced Endpoint Assessment
F. smart tunnel
Answer: ACDE
3. Which of the followings are two of the key criteria to use when sizing which Cisco Security MARS model
to deploy? (Choose two.)
A. monitoring and reporting protocols being used (e.g., syslog versus SNMP)
B. using a one-, two-, or three-tier Cisco Security MARS architecture
C. events-storage requirements
D. database-reporting requirements
E. incoming events per second rate
F. auto-mitigation requirements
Answer: CE
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Exam Number:642-583
Associated Certifications: Cisco Security Solutions and Design Specialist
Duration: 60 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English
Exam Description
The 642-583 SSSE exam tests a candidate's knowledge of Cisco security products and product positioning and where each technology fits in the design of an integrated, collaborative, secure network. Topics covered include Cisco Security Appliance (ASA), ASA, IDS/IPS, VPN, Security Management, CS-MARS, NAC Appliance, Cisco Ironport and Scansafe web security.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Security Solutions for System Engineers exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the threat landscape and goals of security engineering
Describe basic risk management principles and approaches
Describe the general types of attacks (e.g. physical, network infrastructure, systems, applications, and user)
Identify modern security controls and relate them to modern threats
Describe different types of available security controls (e.g. application, system, network, access, cryptographic)
Describe Cisco specific security controls and the threats they mitigate
Exam : Cisco 642-583
Title : Security Solutions for Systems Engineers
1. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching (FPM) is an example of which kind of network security technology?
A. Layer 37 stateless packet filter
B. stateful Layer 7 (application) firewall
C. deep packet inspection (DPI) firewall
D. stateful packet inspection
E. proxy firewall
F. IPS
Answer: A
2. Cisco SSL VPN solution uses the Cisco Secure Desktop to provide which four functionalities? (Choose
four.)
A. pre-login assessment
B. application plug-ins
C. secure vault
D. Cache Cleaner
E. Advanced Endpoint Assessment
F. smart tunnel
Answer: ACDE
3. Which of the followings are two of the key criteria to use when sizing which Cisco Security MARS model
to deploy? (Choose two.)
A. monitoring and reporting protocols being used (e.g., syslog versus SNMP)
B. using a one-, two-, or three-tier Cisco Security MARS architecture
C. events-storage requirements
D. database-reporting requirements
E. incoming events per second rate
F. auto-mitigation requirements
Answer: CE
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Exam Number: 642-832
Associated Certifications: CCNP Certification
Duration: 135 minutes (35-40 questions)
Available Languages: English
Register for Exam: Pearson VUE
Exam Policies: Read current policies and requirements
Exam Demo & Tutorial: Review the TSHOOT Demo & Tutorial
Register for Course: TSHOOT courses and other offerings
Exam Description
Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Switched Networks (TSHOOT 642-832) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP?, certification. The TSHOOT 642-832 exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to (1) plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks and (2) use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting.
Exam : Cisco 642-832
Title : Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
1. At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
Answer: D
2. Part of the routing table of router Cisco1 is displayed below:
From analyzing the above command output, what is the administrative distance of the external EIGRP routes?
A. 24
B. 32
C. 90
D. 170
E. 27316
F. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
3. EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Cisco network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Answer: CD
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Exam Number: 642-832
Associated Certifications: CCNP Certification
Duration: 135 minutes (35-40 questions)
Available Languages: English
Register for Exam: Pearson VUE
Exam Policies: Read current policies and requirements
Exam Demo & Tutorial: Review the TSHOOT Demo & Tutorial
Register for Course: TSHOOT courses and other offerings
Exam Description
Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Switched Networks (TSHOOT 642-832) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP?, certification. The TSHOOT 642-832 exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to (1) plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks and (2) use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting.
Exam : Cisco 642-832
Title : Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
1. At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
Answer: D
2. Part of the routing table of router Cisco1 is displayed below:
From analyzing the above command output, what is the administrative distance of the external EIGRP routes?
A. 24
B. 32
C. 90
D. 170
E. 27316
F. None of the other alternatives apply
Answer: D
3. EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Cisco network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Answer: CD
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Testinside Cisco 642-902 exam questions is 100% tested and verified by certified experts. Our Cisco 642-902 Practice Questions & Answers include Cisco 642-902 Practice Questions & Answers, Cisco 642-902 Practice Testing Software and other Cisco 642-902 Training Tools for your ultimate Cisco 642-902 Certification Preparation Experience.
642-902 Exam Number: 642-902
Associated Certifications: CCNP Certification, CCIP and CCDP
Duration: 120 minutes (52 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese
Register for Exam: Pearson VUE
Exam Policies: Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial: Review type of exam questions
Register for Course: ROUTE courses and other offerings
642-902 Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE 642-902) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP , Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional CCIP , and Cisco Certified Design Professional CCDP certifications. The ROUTE 642-902 exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to use advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and secure Cisco ISR routers connected to LANs and WANs. The exam also covers configuration of secure routing solutions to support branch offices and mobile workers.
Exam : Cisco 642-902
Title : Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE) Practice Test
1. Which three statements about the EIGRP routing protocol are true? (Choose three.)
A. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including hello, database description (DBD), link-state
request (LSR), link-state update (LSU), and LSAck.
B. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.10.
C. EIGRP will not form a neighbor relationship with another peer when their K values are mismatched.
D. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.9.
E. EIGRP will form a neighbor relationship with another peer even when their K values are mismatched.
F. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including hello, update, query, reply, and ACK packets.
Answer: BCF
2. EIGRP has been configured to operate over Frame Relay multipoint connections. What should the
bandwidth command be set to?
A. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection multiplied by the number of circuits
B. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection
C. the CIR rate of the highest speed connection
D. the sum of all the CIRs divided by the number of connections
Answer: A
3. After DUAL calculations, a router has identified a successor route, but no routes have qualified as a
feasible successor. In the event that the current successor goes down, what process will EIGRP use in the
selection of a new successor?
A. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest advertised distance (AD).
B. The route will transition to the active state.
C. The route will transition to the passive state.
D. EIGRP will find the interface with the lowest MAC address.
E. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest feasible distance (FD).
Answer: B
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642-902 Exam Number: 642-902
Associated Certifications: CCNP Certification, CCIP and CCDP
Duration: 120 minutes (52 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese
Register for Exam: Pearson VUE
Exam Policies: Read current policies and requirements
Exam Tutorial: Review type of exam questions
Register for Course: ROUTE courses and other offerings
642-902 Exam Description
The Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE 642-902) is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP , Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional CCIP , and Cisco Certified Design Professional CCDP certifications. The ROUTE 642-902 exam will certify that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to use advanced IP addressing and routing in implementing scalable and secure Cisco ISR routers connected to LANs and WANs. The exam also covers configuration of secure routing solutions to support branch offices and mobile workers.
Exam : Cisco 642-902
Title : Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE) Practice Test
1. Which three statements about the EIGRP routing protocol are true? (Choose three.)
A. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including hello, database description (DBD), link-state
request (LSR), link-state update (LSU), and LSAck.
B. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.10.
C. EIGRP will not form a neighbor relationship with another peer when their K values are mismatched.
D. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.9.
E. EIGRP will form a neighbor relationship with another peer even when their K values are mismatched.
F. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including hello, update, query, reply, and ACK packets.
Answer: BCF
2. EIGRP has been configured to operate over Frame Relay multipoint connections. What should the
bandwidth command be set to?
A. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection multiplied by the number of circuits
B. the CIR rate of the lowest speed connection
C. the CIR rate of the highest speed connection
D. the sum of all the CIRs divided by the number of connections
Answer: A
3. After DUAL calculations, a router has identified a successor route, but no routes have qualified as a
feasible successor. In the event that the current successor goes down, what process will EIGRP use in the
selection of a new successor?
A. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest advertised distance (AD).
B. The route will transition to the active state.
C. The route will transition to the passive state.
D. EIGRP will find the interface with the lowest MAC address.
E. EIGRP will automatically use the route with the lowest feasible distance (FD).
Answer: B
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646-364 Exam:Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers
Exam Number:646-364 CXFA
Associated Certifications: Cisco Express Foundation Sales Specialist
Duration: 60 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English
Exam Description
The 646-364 CXFA exam is intended primarily for Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers. The exam tests a candidate's knowledge of:
The features and benefits of wireless, security, unified communication, and routing and switching products and solutions.
How Cisco's products and solutions are integrated into a customers network.
The competitive differentiators and positioning of the products and solutions.
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach: How to successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies.
Candidates can take the Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers v1.3 course on the Partner Education Connection to prepare for the exam.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Unified Communications
Describe features and benefits of Cisco Routing and Switching products and solutions
Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Security
Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Wireless
Describe the tools and competitive advantages need to sell effectively
Exam : Cisco 646-364
Title : Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers
1. The Cisco Unified Wireless Network minimizes the TCO and maximizes woreless network uptime by
optimizing which two deployment, management, and security features?(Choose two)
A. unified wireless and wired infrastructure for a single point of control for all WLAN traffic
B. simplified management of central or remotely located access points
C. extension features to wired network services, such as denial of service prevention and ACLs
D. threat defense with a robust wired IDS
Answer: AB
2. What would you use to enforce security-policy compliance on all devices that seek to access the
network?
A. VLAN
B. NAC
C. EAP
D. WLAN
Answer: B
3. Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before
creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability,
capacity and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey
Answer: ABE
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Exam Number:646-364 CXFA
Associated Certifications: Cisco Express Foundation Sales Specialist
Duration: 60 minutes (55-65 questions)
Available Languages: English
Exam Description
The 646-364 CXFA exam is intended primarily for Cisco Channel Partner Account Managers. The exam tests a candidate's knowledge of:
The features and benefits of wireless, security, unified communication, and routing and switching products and solutions.
How Cisco's products and solutions are integrated into a customers network.
The competitive differentiators and positioning of the products and solutions.
The Cisco Lifecycle Services approach: How to successfully sell, deploy, and support Cisco technologies.
Candidates can take the Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers v1.3 course on the Partner Education Connection to prepare for the exam.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Remote Access exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Describe the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach
Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Unified Communications
Describe features and benefits of Cisco Routing and Switching products and solutions
Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Security
Describe the Cisco products and solutions for Wireless
Describe the tools and competitive advantages need to sell effectively
Exam : Cisco 646-364
Title : Cisco Express Foundation for Account Managers
1. The Cisco Unified Wireless Network minimizes the TCO and maximizes woreless network uptime by
optimizing which two deployment, management, and security features?(Choose two)
A. unified wireless and wired infrastructure for a single point of control for all WLAN traffic
B. simplified management of central or remotely located access points
C. extension features to wired network services, such as denial of service prevention and ACLs
D. threat defense with a robust wired IDS
Answer: AB
2. What would you use to enforce security-policy compliance on all devices that seek to access the
network?
A. VLAN
B. NAC
C. EAP
D. WLAN
Answer: B
3. Which three business requirements development activities are performed in the prepare phase before
creating a technology strategy? (Choose three)
A. identifying and assessing customer business requirements
B. documenting and categorizing customer business requirements in terms of performance, availability,
capacity and security
C. producing a documented technology strategy
D. creating a bill of materials
E. presenting documented business requirements to a customer and having the customer validate them
F. completing a site survey
Answer: ABE
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We update our Cisco 646-364 practice test as soon as the Exam Objectives change. Our Certified Experts and Professionals prepare this Cisco 646-364 Study Guide for you combining all the knowledge and keeping in view the latest Cisco Certification 646-364 Exam Objectives. Your success is guaranteed in Cisco 646-364 Exam using our Study Guide because you always get the latest and most accurate Cisco 646-364 Study Guide for us. Try our Cisco 646-364 Study Guide today.
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2011年1月26日 星期三
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LOT-915 Exam
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Exam Number/Code : LOT-915
Exam Name : IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution
Questions and Answers : 79 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-27
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Exam Number/Code : LOT-915
Exam Name : IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution
Questions and Answers : 79 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-27
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Update Time: 2011-01-27
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Exam Number/Code : LX0-102
Exam Name : CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 2
Questions and Answers : 117 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-27
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Exam Name : Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-27
Exam : Citrix 1Y0-A06
Title : Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
1. In which three situations would an administrator need to mount a vDisk? (Choose three.)
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B. Changing the image mode of the vDisk
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Answer: CDE
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A. new location
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C. service user account
D. farm name, site name and collection name
Answer: A
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A. .PVP file
B. DATABASE.MDB
C. UPGRADEAGENT.EXE
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A. Increase the I/O burst size
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Answer: B
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Questions and Answers : 107 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-27
Exam : Citrix 1Y0-A06
Title : Implementing Citrix Provisioning Server 5.0
1. In which three situations would an administrator need to mount a vDisk? (Choose three.)
A. Creating a vDisk file
B. Changing the image mode of the vDisk
C. Editing the contents of a vDisk image file
D. Viewing the contents of a vDisk image file
E. Formatting the vDisk file so that an image can be written to it
Answer: CDE
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A. new location
B. administrator group
C. service user account
D. farm name, site name and collection name
Answer: A
3. An administrator must use the __________ to change previous versions of vDisks to the new Virtual
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A. .PVP file
B. DATABASE.MDB
C. UPGRADEAGENT.EXE
D. VHDCONVERTER.EXE
Answer: D
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limited bandwidth. How can an administrator prevent target devices from releasing their licenses because
of latency and connectivity issues in the environment?
A. Increase the I/O burst size
B. Increase the length of the license timeout period
C. Reduce the amount of time for the boot pause setting
D. Reduce the maximum boot time for the target devices
Answer: B
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Exam Name : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-26
Exam : SNIA S10-101
Title : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
1. Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C
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C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
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B. AES
C. Turing
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Answer: B
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Update Time: 2011-01-26
Exam : SNIA S10-101
Title : SNIA Storage Network Foundations Exam
1. Which statement defines Serial-Attached SCSI (SAS) and SATA connectivity?
A. SAS storage devices can plug into SATA backplanes.
B. SATA storage devices can not plug into SAS backplanes.
C. SAS backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
D. SATA backplanes can accommodate both SAS and SATA devices.
Answer: C
2. What is the function of the "head" on the disk drive?
A. It is used to read or write data onto the disk media.
B. It is used to seek to the area where the requested data is located.
C. It is where the data is stored or retrieved.
D. It is a standard unit of measurement on the disk media.
Answer: A
3. What is a common type of symmetric key ciphering when securing stored information?
A. DEC
B. AES
C. Turing
D. SSL
Answer: B
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2011年1月25日 星期二
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Questions and Answers : 128 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-25
Exam : Avaya Certification 132-S-720.1
Title : Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam
3. Your customer is implementing an AE Services 4 0 and has purchased the software only solution. What
hardware and software must the customer provide?
A. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3
B. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 4
C. server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition , and all third-party software required for AE
D. Services server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3. and all third-party software required for
AE Services
Answer: B
4. Your customer is migrating their call center from basic ACD to EAS.
After the EAS feature has been licensed on the system, what are three tasks that must be completed to
facilitate the EAS conversion? (Choose three. )
A. EAS must be optioned on the Feature Related System Parameters form.
B. The CMS (if present) switch administration for the ACO must be changed to support EAS.
C. Queue Status Indicators must be re-administered.
D. Agent work mode buttons on voice terminals must be modified.
E. Administer hunt groups for Redirect on No Answer (RONA).
Answer: ABD
5. You are a team member assigned on a project to install a new Avaya S87XX Media Server and a new
Avaya Call Management System (CMS). Who is responsible for identifying what equipment has arrived at
the customers site?
A. the field technician
B. the client executive
C. the program manager
D. the remote field engineer (RFE)
Answer: A
The Avaya 132-S-720.1 exam is an indispensable part of Other Avaya Certification certification, the cosmopolitan standard for many successful IT companies and most success persons in IT industry. Thus almost every IT candidate does his/her level best to pass the testing.
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132-S-720.1 Exam
Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam
Exam Number/Code : 132-S-720.1
Exam Name : Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam
Questions and Answers : 128 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-25
Exam : Avaya Certification 132-S-720.1
Title : Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam
3. Your customer is implementing an AE Services 4 0 and has purchased the software only solution. What
hardware and software must the customer provide?
A. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3
B. server hardware platform and Red Hat Enterprise Edition 4
C. server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition , and all third-party software required for AE
D. Services server hardware platform, Red Hat Enterprise Edition 3. and all third-party software required for
AE Services
Answer: B
4. Your customer is migrating their call center from basic ACD to EAS.
After the EAS feature has been licensed on the system, what are three tasks that must be completed to
facilitate the EAS conversion? (Choose three. )
A. EAS must be optioned on the Feature Related System Parameters form.
B. The CMS (if present) switch administration for the ACO must be changed to support EAS.
C. Queue Status Indicators must be re-administered.
D. Agent work mode buttons on voice terminals must be modified.
E. Administer hunt groups for Redirect on No Answer (RONA).
Answer: ABD
5. You are a team member assigned on a project to install a new Avaya S87XX Media Server and a new
Avaya Call Management System (CMS). Who is responsible for identifying what equipment has arrived at
the customers site?
A. the field technician
B. the client executive
C. the program manager
D. the remote field engineer (RFE)
Answer: A
The Avaya 132-S-720.1 exam is an indispensable part of Other Avaya Certification certification, the cosmopolitan standard for many successful IT companies and most success persons in IT industry. Thus almost every IT candidate does his/her level best to pass the testing.
Testinside 132-S-720.1 Certification Study Material includes Study Guides, 132-S-720.1 Questions and Answers, 132-S-720.1 demo. We fulfill all your certification needs here at Testinside. With the help of the Testinside, you can get more imformation and materials about 132-S-720.1 exam.You can search out for a particular examination like Testinside 132-S-720.1 and get the details of this examination. You can also look out for an exam review and can also experience a test exam.
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000-975 IBM i6.1 Basic Operations
000-978 Power Systems with POWER7 & IBM i Sales Skills - V1
251-510 Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 – BETA
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Exam Number/Code : 251-510
Exam Name : Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA
Questions and Answers : 196 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-25
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Symantec Certification 251-510 Exam
Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA
Exam Number/Code : 251-510
Exam Name : Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA
Questions and Answers : 196 Q&As
Update Time: 2011-01-25
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1. After connecting a new server to a network switch, you discover that you are NOT able to communicate
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You run snoop on the new server and find that it is returning traffic for a network different than the one you
want to connect the server to.
Which can be the source of the problem?
A. ARP cache on the server is stale
B. network cable is longer than allowed
C. switch port configured for the wrong VLAN
D. server is configured with the wrong IP address
E. DHCP server returning incorrect network settings
Answer: C
2. You have been assigned to create a plan to increase network security. Which two network topologies
and devices should you plan on phasing out? (Choose two.)
A. bus
B. hub
C. VLAN
D. switch
E. bridge
Answer: AB
3. You have been asked to recommend a network topology for a new server network. This network will
service all of your Sun servers, approximately 50 machines, plus several employee workstations,
approximately 20 machines.
Which network topology is correctly suited for this environment?
A. A ring topology using intelligent hubs
B. A bus topology segmented into multiple network
C. A VLAN topology with one VLAN for servers and another for workstations
D. A star topology with one segment for servers and another for workstations
Answer: C
4. You have been asked to recommend a network connection type to link your office with another office
approximately 1,000 meters (1,100 yards) away. This network will transfer very large files between the two
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Which network media type should you recommend?
A. 10BASE-T
B. 1000BASE-SX
C. 1000BASE-LX
D. 1000BASE-CX
E. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: C
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Exam : SUN Certification 310-302
Title : Sun Certified Network Administrator for Solaris 10 OS
1. After connecting a new server to a network switch, you discover that you are NOT able to communicate
between this server and others on the same network.
You run snoop on the new server and find that it is returning traffic for a network different than the one you
want to connect the server to.
Which can be the source of the problem?
A. ARP cache on the server is stale
B. network cable is longer than allowed
C. switch port configured for the wrong VLAN
D. server is configured with the wrong IP address
E. DHCP server returning incorrect network settings
Answer: C
2. You have been assigned to create a plan to increase network security. Which two network topologies
and devices should you plan on phasing out? (Choose two.)
A. bus
B. hub
C. VLAN
D. switch
E. bridge
Answer: AB
3. You have been asked to recommend a network topology for a new server network. This network will
service all of your Sun servers, approximately 50 machines, plus several employee workstations,
approximately 20 machines.
Which network topology is correctly suited for this environment?
A. A ring topology using intelligent hubs
B. A bus topology segmented into multiple network
C. A VLAN topology with one VLAN for servers and another for workstations
D. A star topology with one segment for servers and another for workstations
Answer: C
4. You have been asked to recommend a network connection type to link your office with another office
approximately 1,000 meters (1,100 yards) away. This network will transfer very large files between the two
offices.
Which network media type should you recommend?
A. 10BASE-T
B. 1000BASE-SX
C. 1000BASE-LX
D. 1000BASE-CX
E. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: C
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Hot Exams:
132-S-720.1 Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam
251-510 Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA
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