The test consists of five sections containing a total of approximately 60 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.
Section 1 - Knowledge of Applied SOA (13%)
Apply the SOA approach to solution architecture.
Position the benefits of SOA with respect to business and IT strategy
Define the role that standards play in an SOA solution.
Apply the IBM SOA Reference Architecture and leverage the IBM SOA Foundation
Apply proper design guidelines for an SOA solution
000-667 Exam
IBM Test 667, Architectural Design of SOA Solutions
Exam Number/Code : 000-667
Exam Name : IBM Test 667, Architectural Design of SOA Solutions
Questions and Answers : 105 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-31
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1. A company has an existing message-based middleware solution that allows exchanging business information among several applications using a topic-based publish-subscribe integration pattern. As part of its SOA strategy, the company is now embarking on service-enabling the applications and wants to employ the publish-subscribe pattern using Web services technology.
Which Web services specification best addresses this need?
A. WS-Federation
B. WS-Addressing
C. WS-Notification
D. WS-MetaDataExchange
Answer: C
2. A government agency wants to ensure the selected patterns and code standards set down by their SOA governance body are adhered to.
Which type of tool will support this?
A. Code generation
B. Parsing
C. UML modeling
D. Data modeling
Answer: A
3. Why is it necessary to enforce policies and monitor services within SOA Services Management?
A. To insure data integrity and correlate business processes
B. To trace transactions and diagnose problems
C. To collect key performance metrics
D. To ensure service availability
Answer: D
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1z0-402 study guide
1z0-402 Exam
Oracle Enterprise Linux: Fundamentals
Exam Number/Code : 1z0-402
Exam Name : Oracle Enterprise Linux: Fundamentals
Questions and Answers : 224 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-31
Exam Topics:
Introduction to Shell Scripting
Process arguments passed into a shell script
Get input from the user of a shell script
Generate formatted output from a shell script
Perform tasks conditionally using if, case and while loops in a shell script
Perform repeated actions over a set of values with for loops on the command line and within shell scripts
Do math in a shell script
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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-402
Title : Oracle Spplication Server 10g:Administration II
1. View the Exhibit.
The shell script is executed using the default shell interpreter with the input as w. What will be the output of the script based on this input?
A. It will print the current date and time.
B. It will list all the currently logged in users.
C. It will show that the input is not a valid option.
D. It will print the currently logged in users, current date, and time.
E. It will not show any result because the case block is terminated with an esac.
Answer: C
2. You executed the following command to verify the integrity of sendmail:
What do infer about the /var/log/mail/statistics file from the output?
A. The permissions, user ownership, and file type have changed.
B. The permissions, group ownership and file type have changed.
C. The user ownership, group ownership and file type have changed.
D. The MD5 signature, file size, and modification time have changed.
Answer: D
3. As user smith you want to log in to a remote machine in a securely encrypted channel. Which utility would you use for the purpose?
A. ssh
B. ftp
C. telnet
D. rlogin
Answer: A
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Exam Number/Code : 1z0-402
Exam Name : Oracle Enterprise Linux: Fundamentals
Questions and Answers : 224 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-31
Exam Topics:
Introduction to Shell Scripting
Process arguments passed into a shell script
Get input from the user of a shell script
Generate formatted output from a shell script
Perform tasks conditionally using if, case and while loops in a shell script
Perform repeated actions over a set of values with for loops on the command line and within shell scripts
Do math in a shell script
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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-402
Title : Oracle Spplication Server 10g:Administration II
1. View the Exhibit.
The shell script is executed using the default shell interpreter with the input as w. What will be the output of the script based on this input?
A. It will print the current date and time.
B. It will list all the currently logged in users.
C. It will show that the input is not a valid option.
D. It will print the currently logged in users, current date, and time.
E. It will not show any result because the case block is terminated with an esac.
Answer: C
2. You executed the following command to verify the integrity of sendmail:
What do infer about the /var/log/mail/statistics file from the output?
A. The permissions, user ownership, and file type have changed.
B. The permissions, group ownership and file type have changed.
C. The user ownership, group ownership and file type have changed.
D. The MD5 signature, file size, and modification time have changed.
Answer: D
3. As user smith you want to log in to a remote machine in a securely encrypted channel. Which utility would you use for the purpose?
A. ssh
B. ftp
C. telnet
D. rlogin
Answer: A
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Enterprise Linux System Administration
Exam Number: 1Z0-403
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 113
PassingScore: 62%
Exam Topics:
Task Automation & Process Accounting
Use the at & batch facilities to run one-time tasks
Manage cron jobs for recurring tasks, both system-wide and per-user
Configure syslog for central system logging
View, manage and kill running processes
Monitor system and application logs on a daily basis with logwatch
Configure process accounting and examine the resulting logs
Limiting and measuring resource usage (ulimit, pam, sar, vmstat, iostat)
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Exam : Oracle 1z0-403
Title : Enterprise Linux System Administration
1. Match the shutdown options with their descriptions: Option Option Description
1) k a) forces fsck on reboot
2) f b) uses /etc/shutdown.allow
3) F c) skips fsck on reboot
4) a d) sends warning messages to all those logged on without actually shutting down the system
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
B. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
Answer: A
2. The output of the pstree command is shown below:
[root@server1 ~]# pstree | grep login
|-3*[login---bash]
|--login--bash--vim
|
Which command would you use to terminate all login sessions on the text terminals? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. pkill login
B. kill -5 login
C. killall login
D. killall5 login
E. kill -KILL login
Answer: AC
3. Which two statements are true about a kernel patch? (Choose two.)
A. Patches are always the part of a released kernel tree.
B. After applying a patch, it is important to remove the kernel sources of earlier versions.
C. After applying a patch, it is important to make sure that the entire kernel configuration and
Makefiles are cleaned up.
D. If patches are not built from clean unpatched kernel sources, then a change in one patch may
make other patches to fail.
Answer: CD
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Exam Number: 1Z0-403
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 113
PassingScore: 62%
Exam Topics:
Task Automation & Process Accounting
Use the at & batch facilities to run one-time tasks
Manage cron jobs for recurring tasks, both system-wide and per-user
Configure syslog for central system logging
View, manage and kill running processes
Monitor system and application logs on a daily basis with logwatch
Configure process accounting and examine the resulting logs
Limiting and measuring resource usage (ulimit, pam, sar, vmstat, iostat)
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Exam : Oracle 1z0-403
Title : Enterprise Linux System Administration
1. Match the shutdown options with their descriptions: Option Option Description
1) k a) forces fsck on reboot
2) f b) uses /etc/shutdown.allow
3) F c) skips fsck on reboot
4) a d) sends warning messages to all those logged on without actually shutting down the system
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
B. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
Answer: A
2. The output of the pstree command is shown below:
[root@server1 ~]# pstree | grep login
|-3*[login---bash]
|--login--bash--vim
|
Which command would you use to terminate all login sessions on the text terminals? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. pkill login
B. kill -5 login
C. killall login
D. killall5 login
E. kill -KILL login
Answer: AC
3. Which two statements are true about a kernel patch? (Choose two.)
A. Patches are always the part of a released kernel tree.
B. After applying a patch, it is important to remove the kernel sources of earlier versions.
C. After applying a patch, it is important to make sure that the entire kernel configuration and
Makefiles are cleaned up.
D. If patches are not built from clean unpatched kernel sources, then a change in one patch may
make other patches to fail.
Answer: CD
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Siebel 7.7 Server Architect Professional Core Exam Printer View
Exam Number: 1Z0-630
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 58
Passing Score: 75%
Exam Topics:
Siebel Analytics Overview
Describe business analytics and business intelligence
Identify the analytics business challenge and the solution provided by Siebel Analytics products
Describe data warehousing
Describe data modeling
Describe the Siebel Analytics products and components used to support business intelligence requirements
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1. How do you invoke Time Series Wizard in the Siebel Analytics Administration Tool?
A. In the Business Model and Mapping layer, select a business model and right-click > Time Series Wizard
B. In the Physical layer, select a schema folder and right-click > Time Series Wizard
C. In the Presentation layer, select a catalog folder and right-click > Time Series Wizard
D. From the File menu, select Time Series Wizard
E. From the Manage menu, select Time Series Wizard
Answer: A
2. Which of the following object-level security action settings are done in the Siebel Analytics repository using the Administration Tool? Choose two.
A. Assign users to a Web catalog group
B. Create a new repository group
C. Create a new user in the repository
D. Create a Web catalog group
E. Define permissions for dashboard
Answer: BC
3. When double-clicking ABC.rpd in the Analytics/Repository directory, the Analytics Server architect gets the message The repository 'ABC.rpd' can only be opened as Read-Only. Do you want to open it? What can you tell from that message? Choose two.
A. Siebel Analytics Server is running
B. Siebel Analytics Web service is running
C. ABC. rpd is a default repository specified in the NQSConfig.ini
D. ABC. rpd is a special repository that can only be opened in online mode
Answer: AC
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Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 58
Passing Score: 75%
Exam Topics:
Siebel Analytics Overview
Describe business analytics and business intelligence
Identify the analytics business challenge and the solution provided by Siebel Analytics products
Describe data warehousing
Describe data modeling
Describe the Siebel Analytics products and components used to support business intelligence requirements
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1. How do you invoke Time Series Wizard in the Siebel Analytics Administration Tool?
A. In the Business Model and Mapping layer, select a business model and right-click > Time Series Wizard
B. In the Physical layer, select a schema folder and right-click > Time Series Wizard
C. In the Presentation layer, select a catalog folder and right-click > Time Series Wizard
D. From the File menu, select Time Series Wizard
E. From the Manage menu, select Time Series Wizard
Answer: A
2. Which of the following object-level security action settings are done in the Siebel Analytics repository using the Administration Tool? Choose two.
A. Assign users to a Web catalog group
B. Create a new repository group
C. Create a new user in the repository
D. Create a Web catalog group
E. Define permissions for dashboard
Answer: BC
3. When double-clicking ABC.rpd in the Analytics/Repository directory, the Analytics Server architect gets the message The repository 'ABC.rpd' can only be opened as Read-Only. Do you want to open it? What can you tell from that message? Choose two.
A. Siebel Analytics Server is running
B. Siebel Analytics Web service is running
C. ABC. rpd is a default repository specified in the NQSConfig.ini
D. ABC. rpd is a special repository that can only be opened in online mode
Answer: AC
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220-602 Exam
CompTIA A+ 220-602 exam(IT Technician designation pathway)
Exam Number/Code : 220-602
Exam Name : CompTIA A+ 220-602 exam(IT Technician designation pathway)
Questions and Answers : 621 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-31
1. Making data appear to come from somewhere other than the originating point is known as:
A. social engineering.
B. spoofing.
C. hacking.
D. cracking.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following can be used to prepare a disk image for duplication?
A. Copy
B. sysprep
C. xcopy
D. Shadow copy
Answer: B
3. A technician installs a SATA controller card and moves the hard drive cable from the system board to the SATA controller. The system POSTs and the controller BIOS recognizes the hard drive but does not boot to the hard drive and start Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. Windows cannot be booted from a controller card.
B. The hard drive must have Windows reinstalled because a new controller card was installed.
C. The SATA controller card was not set as a boot device in the computer BIOS.
D. The new controller must have the correct jumper settings for Windows mode.
Answer: C
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CompTIA A+ 220-602 exam(IT Technician designation pathway)
Exam Number/Code : 220-602
Exam Name : CompTIA A+ 220-602 exam(IT Technician designation pathway)
Questions and Answers : 621 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-31
1. Making data appear to come from somewhere other than the originating point is known as:
A. social engineering.
B. spoofing.
C. hacking.
D. cracking.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following can be used to prepare a disk image for duplication?
A. Copy
B. sysprep
C. xcopy
D. Shadow copy
Answer: B
3. A technician installs a SATA controller card and moves the hard drive cable from the system board to the SATA controller. The system POSTs and the controller BIOS recognizes the hard drive but does not boot to the hard drive and start Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. Windows cannot be booted from a controller card.
B. The hard drive must have Windows reinstalled because a new controller card was installed.
C. The SATA controller card was not set as a boot device in the computer BIOS.
D. The new controller must have the correct jumper settings for Windows mode.
Answer: C
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1. Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity?
A. HBA
B. PBX
C. VoIP
D. NIC
Answer: D
2. Which of the following technologies allows multiple logical subnets to span an entire physical switched network?
A. ARP
B. DMZ
C. VLAN
D. VPN
Answer: C
3. Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers?
A. Full
B. Disk imaging
C. Incremental
D. Tape backup
Answer: B
4. Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. Flash
D. SCSI
Answer: B
5. Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN?
A. Higher data integrity
B. Lower cost of implementation
C. Higher redundancy
D. Increased performance
Answer: B
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1. Which of the following expansion cards should be installed into a server to provide iSCSI SAN connectivity?
A. HBA
B. PBX
C. VoIP
D. NIC
Answer: D
2. Which of the following technologies allows multiple logical subnets to span an entire physical switched network?
A. ARP
B. DMZ
C. VLAN
D. VPN
Answer: C
3. Which of the following is the BEST recovery method for a server that only aggregates report data and stores data on separate servers?
A. Full
B. Disk imaging
C. Incremental
D. Tape backup
Answer: B
4. Which of the following internal storage technologies has the HIGHEST single drive storage capacity?
A. SAS
B. SATA
C. Flash
D. SCSI
Answer: B
5. Which of the following is a benefit of NAS over SAN?
A. Higher data integrity
B. Lower cost of implementation
C. Higher redundancy
D. Increased performance
Answer: B
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Exam : CompTIA SY0-201
Title : CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
1. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
A. Standards
B. Guideline
C. Policy
D. Procedures
Answer: D
2. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
A. full access to the network, except user-created databases.
B. unrestricted approved access, provided that every action is logged.
C. a test user account, but the company performs the network footprinting.
D. no information regarding their topology or technologies.
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is a security threat that hides itself within another piece of executable software?
A. Botnet
B. Logic Bomb
C. Trojan
D. Worm
Answer: C
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Exam : CompTIA SY0-201
Title : CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
1. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
A. Standards
B. Guideline
C. Policy
D. Procedures
Answer: D
2. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
A. full access to the network, except user-created databases.
B. unrestricted approved access, provided that every action is logged.
C. a test user account, but the company performs the network footprinting.
D. no information regarding their topology or technologies.
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is a security threat that hides itself within another piece of executable software?
A. Botnet
B. Logic Bomb
C. Trojan
D. Worm
Answer: C
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VCP-410 Exam
VMware Certified Professional on VI4
Exam Number/Code : VCP-410
Exam Name : VMware Certified Professional on VI4
Questions and Answers : 300 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-30
Exam : VMware VCP-410
Title : VMware Certified Professional on VI4
1. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C
2. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host's inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host's inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD
3. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C
4. An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B
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VCP-410 Exam
VMware Certified Professional on VI4
Exam Number/Code : VCP-410
Exam Name : VMware Certified Professional on VI4
Questions and Answers : 300 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-30
Exam : VMware VCP-410
Title : VMware Certified Professional on VI4
1. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C
2. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host's inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host's inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD
3. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C
4. An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B
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Exam : CompTIA 220-701
Title : CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
1. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports. Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?
A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
3. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. computernamesharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: BD
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Exam : CompTIA 220-701
Title : CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
1. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports. Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?
A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
3. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. computernamesharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: BD
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Exam : Apple 9L0-403
Title : Mac OS X Support Essentials 10.6
1. How do you start up a Mac OS X v10.6 computer in single-user mode?
A. Type the command reboot -single in Terminal.
B. Hold down the Command-S keys while the computer restarts.
C. Hold down the Shift-Option keys while the computer restarts.
D. Select Single-User Mode in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences and restart the computer.
Answer: B
2. Which folder contains items that are started by the launchd process when a Mac OS X v10.6 computer starts up?
A. /etc/launchd/
B. /var/run/launchd/
C. /Library/Extensions/
D. /System/Library/LaunchDaemons/
Answer: D
3. Which statement describes characteristics of starting up a Mac OS X v10.6 computer in Safe Boot?
A. To simplify troubleshooting, non-core components of the operating system do not load.
B. To prevent user access to sensitive system files, Simple Finder loads instead of the standard Finder.
C. To increase data security, local volumes are mounted with read-only privileges assigned to all standard users.
D. To increase data security, Firewall and Sharing settings are modified to enable only the minimum set of protocols.
Answer: A
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Exam : Apple 9L0-403
Title : Mac OS X Support Essentials 10.6
1. How do you start up a Mac OS X v10.6 computer in single-user mode?
A. Type the command reboot -single in Terminal.
B. Hold down the Command-S keys while the computer restarts.
C. Hold down the Shift-Option keys while the computer restarts.
D. Select Single-User Mode in the Startup Disk pane of System Preferences and restart the computer.
Answer: B
2. Which folder contains items that are started by the launchd process when a Mac OS X v10.6 computer starts up?
A. /etc/launchd/
B. /var/run/launchd/
C. /Library/Extensions/
D. /System/Library/LaunchDaemons/
Answer: D
3. Which statement describes characteristics of starting up a Mac OS X v10.6 computer in Safe Boot?
A. To simplify troubleshooting, non-core components of the operating system do not load.
B. To prevent user access to sensitive system files, Simple Finder loads instead of the standard Finder.
C. To increase data security, local volumes are mounted with read-only privileges assigned to all standard users.
D. To increase data security, Firewall and Sharing settings are modified to enable only the minimum set of protocols.
Answer: A
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2010年12月28日 星期二
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Design solutions and select Cisco products to protect the network infrastructure
Describe the enterprise infrastructure security architectures
Explain Cisco-supported architectures/products and design guidelines for securing the network infrastructure
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Describe the enterprise Internet access architecture, threats and countermeasures
Explain Cisco-supported architectures/products and design guidelines for securing the enterprise Internet access
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Describe the enterprise infrastructure security architectures
Explain Cisco-supported architectures/products and design guidelines for securing the network infrastructure
Design solutions and select Cisco products to mitigate threats with enterprise Internet access
Describe the enterprise Internet access architecture, threats and countermeasures
Explain Cisco-supported architectures/products and design guidelines for securing the enterprise Internet access
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Exam : CompTIA SY0-201
Title : CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
1. A technician is deciding between implementing a HIDS on the database server or implementing a NIDS. Which of the following are reasons why a NIDS may be better to implement? (Select TWO).
A. Many HIDS require frequent patches and updates.
B. Many HIDS are not able to detect network attacks.
C. Many HIDS have a negative impact on system performance.
D. Many HIDS only offer a low level of detection granularity.
E. Many HIDS are not good at detecting attacks on database servers.
Answer: BC
2. A user was trying to update an open file but when they tried to access the file they were denied. Which of the following would explain why the user could not access the file?
A. Audit only access
B. Execute only access
C. Rights are not set correctly
D. Write only access
Answer: C
3. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
A. Standards
B. Guideline
C. Policy
D. Procedures
Answer: D
4. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
A. full access to the network, except user-created databases.
B. unrestricted approved access, provided that every action is logged.
C. a test user account, but the company performs the network footprinting.
D. no information regarding their topology or technologies.
Answer: D
5. Which of the following is a security threat that hides itself within another piece of executable software?
A. Botnet
B. Logic Bomb
C. Trojan
D. Worm
Answer: C
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Exam : CompTIA SY0-201
Title : CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
1. A technician is deciding between implementing a HIDS on the database server or implementing a NIDS. Which of the following are reasons why a NIDS may be better to implement? (Select TWO).
A. Many HIDS require frequent patches and updates.
B. Many HIDS are not able to detect network attacks.
C. Many HIDS have a negative impact on system performance.
D. Many HIDS only offer a low level of detection granularity.
E. Many HIDS are not good at detecting attacks on database servers.
Answer: BC
2. A user was trying to update an open file but when they tried to access the file they were denied. Which of the following would explain why the user could not access the file?
A. Audit only access
B. Execute only access
C. Rights are not set correctly
D. Write only access
Answer: C
3. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
A. Standards
B. Guideline
C. Policy
D. Procedures
Answer: D
4. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
A. full access to the network, except user-created databases.
B. unrestricted approved access, provided that every action is logged.
C. a test user account, but the company performs the network footprinting.
D. no information regarding their topology or technologies.
Answer: D
5. Which of the following is a security threat that hides itself within another piece of executable software?
A. Botnet
B. Logic Bomb
C. Trojan
D. Worm
Answer: C
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SK0-003 Exam
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam
Exam Number/Code : SK0-003
Exam Name : CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam
Questions and Answers : 410 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-29
1. A technician has a current baseline and is told to install additional memory and a faster NIC card. At which point in time should the next baseline be run?
A. After the memory is installed
B. Before the upgrade is performed
C. After the NIC is installed
D. After the upgrades are performed
Answer: D
2. Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it is unreachable across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day. Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?
A. Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.
B. Reboot the server.
C. Install a new NIC on the server.
D. Verify that network cables are connected.
Answer: D
3. A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method?
A. Greatest, Final, Sequential
B. Full, Partial, Incremental
C. Monthly, Weekly, Daily
D. Full, Differential, Incremental
Answer: C
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SK0-003 Exam
CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam
Exam Number/Code : SK0-003
Exam Name : CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam
Questions and Answers : 410 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-29
1. A technician has a current baseline and is told to install additional memory and a faster NIC card. At which point in time should the next baseline be run?
A. After the memory is installed
B. Before the upgrade is performed
C. After the NIC is installed
D. After the upgrades are performed
Answer: D
2. Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it is unreachable across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day. Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?
A. Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.
B. Reboot the server.
C. Install a new NIC on the server.
D. Verify that network cables are connected.
Answer: D
3. A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method?
A. Greatest, Final, Sequential
B. Full, Partial, Incremental
C. Monthly, Weekly, Daily
D. Full, Differential, Incremental
Answer: C
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Exam : CompTIA N10-004
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1. Click on the exhibit button. Which of the following graphic is a star network topology?
A. Graphic A
B. Graphic B
C. Graphic C
D. Graphic D
Answer: C
2. Click on the exhibit button. Which of the following graphic is a bus network topology?
A. Graphic A
B. Graphic B
C. Graphic C
D. Graphic D
Answer: A
3. Click on the Exhibit button. In the environment represented by the diagram, PC1 is unable to ping server 2, or PC7. Which of the following would MOST likely cause the issues?
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D. Switch A has failed.
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Title : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition)
1. Click on the exhibit button. Which of the following graphic is a star network topology?
A. Graphic A
B. Graphic B
C. Graphic C
D. Graphic D
Answer: C
2. Click on the exhibit button. Which of the following graphic is a bus network topology?
A. Graphic A
B. Graphic B
C. Graphic C
D. Graphic D
Answer: A
3. Click on the Exhibit button. In the environment represented by the diagram, PC1 is unable to ping server 2, or PC7. Which of the following would MOST likely cause the issues?
A. The cable between PC7 and switch A has failed.
B. Switch C has failed.
C. The cable between the server and switch A has failed.
D. Switch A has failed.
Answer: D
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CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
Exam Number/Code : 220-701
Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
Questions and Answers : 460 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-29
1. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports. Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
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A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
3. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. computernamesharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: BD
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CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
Exam Number/Code : 220-701
Exam Name : CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
Questions and Answers : 460 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-29
1. While performing a preventative maintenance check on a personal computer, a technician notices that several unused expansion card slots have open ports. Which of the following BEST describes why the covers for these card slots should be reinstalled?
A. Help limit radio frequency interference (RFI) inside the case.
B. Help ensure proper air flow through the case.
C. Help prevent moisture buildup in the case.
D. Help limit electrostatic discharge (ESD) inside the case.
Answer: B
2. Which of the following allows verification of the port that a printer is currently using?
A. The print queue window from system tray
B. Properties of the printer from the Printers Control Panel
C. Print spooler view in the Printers Control Panel
D. Properties of the port within Device Manager
Answer: B
3. Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
A. USB 001
B. computernamesharename
C. SNMP
D. IP_ip_address
E. IEEE 1394
Answer: BD
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2010年12月27日 星期一
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HP0-J33 Exam
Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions
Exam Number/Code : HP0-J33
Exam Name : Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions
Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-28
1. What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D
2. Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE
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A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D
4. Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A
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C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D
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Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions
Exam Number/Code : HP0-J33
Exam Name : Implementing HP StorageWorks EVA Solutions
Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-28
1. What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D
2. Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE
3. What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB when it is generated?
A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D
4. Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A
5. A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same Redundant Storage Set?
A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D
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Exam Number/Code : HP0-P20
Exam Name : HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-28
1. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: AC
2. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster?
A. cmclstat
B. cmshowcluster
C. cmviewcl
D. cmviewconf
E. cmgetconf
Answer: C
3. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, why do you see an "x" for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file?
A. Blank password is used.
B. Shadow password is enabled.
C. User is currently deactivated.
D. Password has expired.
Answer: B
4. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine? (Select two.)
A. hpvmrun -P vm1
B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start
C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on
D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start
E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init
F. hpvmstart -P vm1
Answer: CF
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A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer: ABD
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HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Exam Number/Code : HP0-P20
Exam Name : HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Questions and Answers : 121 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-28
1. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: AC
2. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster?
A. cmclstat
B. cmshowcluster
C. cmviewcl
D. cmviewconf
E. cmgetconf
Answer: C
3. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, why do you see an "x" for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file?
A. Blank password is used.
B. Shadow password is enabled.
C. User is currently deactivated.
D. Password has expired.
Answer: B
4. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine? (Select two.)
A. hpvmrun -P vm1
B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start
C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on
D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start
E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init
F. hpvmstart -P vm1
Answer: CF
5. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.)
A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer: ABD
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2010年12月26日 星期日
1Z0-052 pdf
1Z0-052 Exam
Oracle Database 11g: Administration I
Exam Number/Code : 1Z0-052
Exam Name : Oracle Database 11g: Administration I
Questions and Answers : 209 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-27
1Z0-052 Test Topics
Exploring the Oracle Database Architecture
Explain the Memory Structures
Describe the Process Structures
Overview of Storage Structures
Preparing the Database Environment
Identify the tools for Administering an Oracle Database
Plan an Oracle Database installation
Install the Oracle software by using Oracle Universal Installer (OUI)
Creating an Oracle Database
Create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
1. Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A. The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B. The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
C. The archived redo log files are missing for which the backup is not available.
D. The database is not opening because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD
2. You perform differential incremental level 1 backups of your database on each working day and level 0 backup on Sundays, to tape. Which two statements are true about differential incremental backups? (Choose two.)
A. The backup performed on Sundays contains all the blocks that have ever been used in the database.
B. The backup performed on Sundays contains all the blocks that have changed since the last level 1 backup.
C. The backup performed on each working day contains all the blocks that have changed since the last level 0 backup.
D. The backup performed on Monday contains all the blocks that have changed since the level 0 backup, and every other working day contains all the blocks that have changed since the level 1 backup.
Answer: AD
3. You have two tables with referential integrity enforced between them. You need to insert data to the child table first because it is going to be a long transaction and data for the parent table will be available in a later stage, which can be inserted as part of the same transaction.
View the Exhibit to examine the commands used to create tables.
Which action would you take to delay the referential integrity checking until the end of the transaction?
A. Set the constraint to deferred before starting the transaction.
B. Alter the constraint to NOVALIDATE state before starting the transaction.
C. Enable the resumable mode for the session before starting the transaction.
D. Set the COMMIT_WAIT parameter to FORCE_WAIT for the session before starting the transaction.
Answer: A
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Oracle Database 11g: Administration I
Exam Number/Code : 1Z0-052
Exam Name : Oracle Database 11g: Administration I
Questions and Answers : 209 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-27
1Z0-052 Test Topics
Exploring the Oracle Database Architecture
Explain the Memory Structures
Describe the Process Structures
Overview of Storage Structures
Preparing the Database Environment
Identify the tools for Administering an Oracle Database
Plan an Oracle Database installation
Install the Oracle software by using Oracle Universal Installer (OUI)
Creating an Oracle Database
Create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
1. Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A. The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B. The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
C. The archived redo log files are missing for which the backup is not available.
D. The database is not opening because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD
2. You perform differential incremental level 1 backups of your database on each working day and level 0 backup on Sundays, to tape. Which two statements are true about differential incremental backups? (Choose two.)
A. The backup performed on Sundays contains all the blocks that have ever been used in the database.
B. The backup performed on Sundays contains all the blocks that have changed since the last level 1 backup.
C. The backup performed on each working day contains all the blocks that have changed since the last level 0 backup.
D. The backup performed on Monday contains all the blocks that have changed since the level 0 backup, and every other working day contains all the blocks that have changed since the level 1 backup.
Answer: AD
3. You have two tables with referential integrity enforced between them. You need to insert data to the child table first because it is going to be a long transaction and data for the parent table will be available in a later stage, which can be inserted as part of the same transaction.
View the Exhibit to examine the commands used to create tables.
Which action would you take to delay the referential integrity checking until the end of the transaction?
A. Set the constraint to deferred before starting the transaction.
B. Alter the constraint to NOVALIDATE state before starting the transaction.
C. Enable the resumable mode for the session before starting the transaction.
D. Set the COMMIT_WAIT parameter to FORCE_WAIT for the session before starting the transaction.
Answer: A
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Oracle Database 11g: Administration II
Exam Number: 1Z0-053
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional
OPN Certified Specialist
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 78
Passing Score: 66%.
Oracle 1Z0-053 Database Architecture and ASM of Exam Topics:
Describe Automatic Storage Management (ASM);
Set up initialization parameter files for ASM and database instances;
Start up and shut down ASM instances;
Administer ASM disk groups.
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1Z0-053 exam is part of the Oracle.1Z0-053 exam information.
Oracle Database 11g: Administration II
Exam Number: 1Z0-053
Associated Certifications: Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Professional
OPN Certified Specialist
Duration: 120 minutes
Number of Questions: 78
Passing Score: 66%.
Oracle 1Z0-053 Database Architecture and ASM of Exam Topics:
Describe Automatic Storage Management (ASM);
Set up initialization parameter files for ASM and database instances;
Start up and shut down ASM instances;
Administer ASM disk groups.
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1Z0-055 Exam
Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs
Exam Number/Code : 1Z0-055
Exam Name : Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs
Questions and Answers : 297 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-11-02
1. You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D
2. Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting the changes made by other transactions?
A. point-in-time recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and use them for recovery
Answer: D
3. Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD
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Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs
Exam Number/Code : 1Z0-055
Exam Name : Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs
Questions and Answers : 297 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-11-02
1. You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D
2. Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting the changes made by other transactions?
A. point-in-time recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and use them for recovery
Answer: D
3. Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD
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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-141
Title : Oracle9i Forms Developer: Build Internet Applications
1. You want to create a calculated item in the Control block of the Human Resources form. This item will contain the total of employee salaries for employees in a particular department. Which statement is true about how to create the calculated item?
A. You can create it by first creating a text item and then changing the item type.
B. You can create it in the Layout Editor using a special tool that creates a calculated item.
C. You can create it by first creating a display item and then setting appropriate properties in its Calculation property group.
D. You can create it in the Layout Editor by selecting the Salary item of the Employees block, selecting the Control block from the block list, clicking the Text Item tool, and drawing a text item on the canvas to automatically calculate a sum of the selected Salary item.
Answer: C
2. Your company assigns three possible credit ratings to customers: Poor, Good, and Excellent (represented numerically by 1, 2, and 3). The DBA has just added a RATING column to the CUSTOMERS table and has asked you to add an item to your form so that credit ratings can be recorded.
To restrict data entry clerks to one of these three values, you decide to create a radio group for the Rating item.
You want to allow for an undetermined (Null) credit rating, and users should be able to update the credit rating from a value to an undetermined rating. How can you implement this?
A. Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the radio group to Null.
B. Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the radio group to one of the credit rating values.
C. Create four radio buttons, and leave blank the value for the undetermined credit rating.
D. Choose a different type of input item, because radio groups do not allow entry and update of null values.
Answer: C
3. You created a query Record Group at design time. Which built-in can you use to execute the query defined in the Record Group object?
A. ADD_GROUP_ROW
B. POPULATE _GROUP
C. ADD_GROUP_COLUMN
D. SET_GROUP_SELECTION
E. CREATE_GROUP_FROM_QUERY
F. POPULATE _GROUP_WITH_QUERY
Answer: B
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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-141
Title : Oracle9i Forms Developer: Build Internet Applications
1. You want to create a calculated item in the Control block of the Human Resources form. This item will contain the total of employee salaries for employees in a particular department. Which statement is true about how to create the calculated item?
A. You can create it by first creating a text item and then changing the item type.
B. You can create it in the Layout Editor using a special tool that creates a calculated item.
C. You can create it by first creating a display item and then setting appropriate properties in its Calculation property group.
D. You can create it in the Layout Editor by selecting the Salary item of the Employees block, selecting the Control block from the block list, clicking the Text Item tool, and drawing a text item on the canvas to automatically calculate a sum of the selected Salary item.
Answer: C
2. Your company assigns three possible credit ratings to customers: Poor, Good, and Excellent (represented numerically by 1, 2, and 3). The DBA has just added a RATING column to the CUSTOMERS table and has asked you to add an item to your form so that credit ratings can be recorded.
To restrict data entry clerks to one of these three values, you decide to create a radio group for the Rating item.
You want to allow for an undetermined (Null) credit rating, and users should be able to update the credit rating from a value to an undetermined rating. How can you implement this?
A. Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the radio group to Null.
B. Create three radio buttons for each of the credit ratings, and set the Mapping of Other Values for the radio group to one of the credit rating values.
C. Create four radio buttons, and leave blank the value for the undetermined credit rating.
D. Choose a different type of input item, because radio groups do not allow entry and update of null values.
Answer: C
3. You created a query Record Group at design time. Which built-in can you use to execute the query defined in the Record Group object?
A. ADD_GROUP_ROW
B. POPULATE _GROUP
C. ADD_GROUP_COLUMN
D. SET_GROUP_SELECTION
E. CREATE_GROUP_FROM_QUERY
F. POPULATE _GROUP_WITH_QUERY
Answer: B
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1z0-147 Exam
oracle9i program with pl/sql
Exam Number/Code : 1z0-147
Exam Name : oracle9i program with pl/sql
Questions and Answers : 132 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-27
1. What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?
A. Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B. Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C. Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D. Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.
Answer: D
2. Examine this procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID in NUMBER, V_CITY in VARCHAR2 DEFAULT 'AUSTIN', V_NAME in VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO TEAM (id, city, name) VALUES (v_id, v_city, v_name); COMMIT; END; Which two statements will successfully invoke this procedure in SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM;
B. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3, V_NAME=>'LONGHORNS', V_CITY=>'AUSTIN');
C. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3,'AUSTIN','LONGHORNS');
D. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID := 3, V_NAME := 'LONGHORNS', V_CITY := 'AUSTIN');
E. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (3,'LONGHORNS');
Answer: BC
3. Which three describe a stored procedure? (Choose three.)
A. A stored procedure is typically written in SQL.
B. By default, a stored procedure executes with the privileges of its owner.
C. A stored procedure has three parts: the specification, the body, and the exception handler part .
D. A stored procedure is stored in the database and can be shared by a number of programs.
E. A stored procedure offers some advantages over a standalone SQL statement, such as programmable functionality and compiled code.
Answer: BDE
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1z0-147 Exam
oracle9i program with pl/sql
Exam Number/Code : 1z0-147
Exam Name : oracle9i program with pl/sql
Questions and Answers : 132 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-27
1. What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?
A. Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B. Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C. Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D. Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.
Answer: D
2. Examine this procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID in NUMBER, V_CITY in VARCHAR2 DEFAULT 'AUSTIN', V_NAME in VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO TEAM (id, city, name) VALUES (v_id, v_city, v_name); COMMIT; END; Which two statements will successfully invoke this procedure in SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM;
B. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3, V_NAME=>'LONGHORNS', V_CITY=>'AUSTIN');
C. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3,'AUSTIN','LONGHORNS');
D. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID := 3, V_NAME := 'LONGHORNS', V_CITY := 'AUSTIN');
E. EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (3,'LONGHORNS');
Answer: BC
3. Which three describe a stored procedure? (Choose three.)
A. A stored procedure is typically written in SQL.
B. By default, a stored procedure executes with the privileges of its owner.
C. A stored procedure has three parts: the specification, the body, and the exception handler part .
D. A stored procedure is stored in the database and can be shared by a number of programs.
E. A stored procedure offers some advantages over a standalone SQL statement, such as programmable functionality and compiled code.
Answer: BDE
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HP0-P20 Exam
HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Exam Number/Code : HP0-P20
Exam Name : HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-25
1. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: AC
2. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster?
A. cmclstat
B. cmshowcluster
C. cmviewcl
D. cmviewconf
E. cmgetconf
Answer: C
3. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, why do you see an "x" for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file?
A. Blank password is used.
B. Shadow password is enabled.
C. User is currently deactivated.
D. Password has expired.
Answer: B
4. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine? (Select two.)
A. hpvmrun -P vm1
B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start
C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on
D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start
E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init
F. hpvmstart -P vm1
Answer: CF
5. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.)
A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer: ABD
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HP0-P20 Exam
HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Exam Number/Code : HP0-P20
Exam Name : HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration
Questions and Answers : 63 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-25
1. Which servers support HP-UX 11i v3? (Select two.)
A. HP9000 PA-RISC servers
B. HP ProLiant servers
C. HP Integrity servers
D. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: AC
2. Which command shows the general status of a Serviceguard cluster?
A. cmclstat
B. cmshowcluster
C. cmviewcl
D. cmviewconf
E. cmgetconf
Answer: C
3. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, why do you see an "x" for the users in the second field of the /etc/passwd file?
A. Blank password is used.
B. Shadow password is enabled.
C. User is currently deactivated.
D. Password has expired.
Answer: B
4. Which commands, run from the VM Host command line, can be used to turn on an Integrity Virtual Machine? (Select two.)
A. hpvmrun -P vm1
B. hpvmconsole -P vm1 start
C. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -c pc -on
D. hpvmmodify -P vm1 start
E. hpvmconsole -P vm1 -init
F. hpvmstart -P vm1
Answer: CF
5. What are the main components of DNS? (Select three.)
A. Name Servers
B. Hierarchical Name Space
C. Name Clients
D. Resolvers
E. ARPA Name Space
F. Start of Authority (SOA)
Answer: ABD
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Exam : VMware VCP-410
Title : VMware Certified Professional on VI4
1. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C
2. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host's inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host's inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD
3. When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A
4. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C
5. An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B
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Exam : VMware VCP-410
Title : VMware Certified Professional on VI4
1. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C
2. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host's inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host's inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD
3. When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A
4. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C
5. An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B
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SY0-201 pdf
SY0-201 Exam Details
Languages: English, Spanish
SY0-201 Exam code: SY0-201
Number of questions: 100
Length of test: 90 minutes
SY0-201 Passing score: 750 on a scale of 100-900
SY0-201 Recommended experience: CompTIA Network+ certification and two years of technical networking experience, with an emphasis on security.
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Exam : CompTIA SY0-201
Title : CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
1. A technician is deciding between implementing a HIDS on the database server or implementing a NIDS. Which of the following are reasons why a NIDS may be better to implement? (Select TWO).
A. Many HIDS require frequent patches and updates.
B. Many HIDS are not able to detect network attacks.
C. Many HIDS have a negative impact on system performance.
D. Many HIDS only offer a low level of detection granularity.
E. Many HIDS are not good at detecting attacks on database servers.
Answer: BC
2. A user was trying to update an open file but when they tried to access the file they were denied. Which of the following would explain why the user could not access the file?
A. Audit only access
B. Execute only access
C. Rights are not set correctly
D. Write only access
Answer: C
3. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
A. Standards
B. Guideline
C. Policy
D. Procedures
Answer: D
4. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
A. full access to the network, except user-created databases.
B. unrestricted approved access, provided that every action is logged.
C. a test user account, but the company performs the network footprinting.
D. no information regarding their topology or technologies.
Answer: D
5. Which of the following is a security threat that hides itself within another piece of executable software?
A. Botnet
B. Logic Bomb
C. Trojan
D. Worm
Answer: C
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Hot Exams:
SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam
642-902 implementing cisco ip routing
Languages: English, Spanish
SY0-201 Exam code: SY0-201
Number of questions: 100
Length of test: 90 minutes
SY0-201 Passing score: 750 on a scale of 100-900
SY0-201 Recommended experience: CompTIA Network+ certification and two years of technical networking experience, with an emphasis on security.
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Exam : CompTIA SY0-201
Title : CompTIA Security+(2008 Edition) Exam
1. A technician is deciding between implementing a HIDS on the database server or implementing a NIDS. Which of the following are reasons why a NIDS may be better to implement? (Select TWO).
A. Many HIDS require frequent patches and updates.
B. Many HIDS are not able to detect network attacks.
C. Many HIDS have a negative impact on system performance.
D. Many HIDS only offer a low level of detection granularity.
E. Many HIDS are not good at detecting attacks on database servers.
Answer: BC
2. A user was trying to update an open file but when they tried to access the file they were denied. Which of the following would explain why the user could not access the file?
A. Audit only access
B. Execute only access
C. Rights are not set correctly
D. Write only access
Answer: C
3. Which of the following organizational documentation describes how tasks or job functions should be conducted?
A. Standards
B. Guideline
C. Policy
D. Procedures
Answer: D
4. corporation has employed a third-party company to perform black-box penetration on their network. The corporation will provide:
A. full access to the network, except user-created databases.
B. unrestricted approved access, provided that every action is logged.
C. a test user account, but the company performs the network footprinting.
D. no information regarding their topology or technologies.
Answer: D
5. Which of the following is a security threat that hides itself within another piece of executable software?
A. Botnet
B. Logic Bomb
C. Trojan
D. Worm
Answer: C
Testinside gives your best reparation about CompTIA SY0-201 exam. CompTIA SY0-201 certification set the standards for networking skills and develops with the IT industry. The SY0-201 braindump is bound to valid, fair and highly classed exams to prepare. All candidate would have the option to choose the track in SY0-201 that which combination of exams would be suitable for them.
Hot Exams:
SK0-003 CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam
642-902 implementing cisco ip routing
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