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2010年12月3日 星期五
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1. A customer has Microsoft clusters presenting multiple TB of data as file services. The customer is looking for a technology approach to simplify the data lifecycle management of that large amount of data.
Which HP Storage Essentials SRM tool would help the customer to quickly identify disk space that can be recycled, pinpoint critical files that should be replicated, and more accurately implement Information Management initiatives?
A. Backup Manager
B. NAS Manager
C. File System Viewer
D. Provisioning Manager
Answer: C
2. Which encryption type is used for securing data in transit over IP networks?
A. Advanced Encryption Standard
B. Internet protocol security
C. crypto processing engine
D. Storage Media Encryption
Answer: B
3. Which management protocols are used to gather basic information from the system, such as the type of system (server, workstation, or printer) and serial number? (Select two.)
A. WBEM
B. NTP
C. SMI-S
D. TCP/IP
E. SCTP
Answer: AC
4. What is the main function of core or director switches?
A. provide support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric
B. provide inter-switch links for any-to-any connectivity
C. provide Fibre Channel over IP and iSCSI connectivity
D. provide user ports for connecting servers and storage systems
Answer: B
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Hot Exam:
220-701 CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
1. A customer has Microsoft clusters presenting multiple TB of data as file services. The customer is looking for a technology approach to simplify the data lifecycle management of that large amount of data.
Which HP Storage Essentials SRM tool would help the customer to quickly identify disk space that can be recycled, pinpoint critical files that should be replicated, and more accurately implement Information Management initiatives?
A. Backup Manager
B. NAS Manager
C. File System Viewer
D. Provisioning Manager
Answer: C
2. Which encryption type is used for securing data in transit over IP networks?
A. Advanced Encryption Standard
B. Internet protocol security
C. crypto processing engine
D. Storage Media Encryption
Answer: B
3. Which management protocols are used to gather basic information from the system, such as the type of system (server, workstation, or printer) and serial number? (Select two.)
A. WBEM
B. NTP
C. SMI-S
D. TCP/IP
E. SCTP
Answer: AC
4. What is the main function of core or director switches?
A. provide support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric
B. provide inter-switch links for any-to-any connectivity
C. provide Fibre Channel over IP and iSCSI connectivity
D. provide user ports for connecting servers and storage systems
Answer: B
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Exam Number/Code : HP0-D08
Exam Name : Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions
Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-04
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1. Which HP Systems Insight Manager pull-down menu do you use to add licenses to the environment?
A. Deploy
B. Configure
C. Options
D. Tools
Answer: A
2. In addition to a server deployment platform, what are other requirements for physical provisioning using Insight Dynamics infrastructure orchestration functionality? (Select two.)
A. availability start and stop dates in the IO calendar
B. operating system templates
C. VC Domain groups on VCEM
D. SAN-backed storage created
E. Failsafe setting enabled on primary group
Answer: CD
3. Which HP Insight product is included with most G6 and later ProLiant servers?
A. Insight Dynamics
B. Insight Control
C. Insight Foundation
D. Insight Control for Linux
Answer: C
Hot Exam:
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Exam Number/Code : HP0-D08
Exam Name : Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions
Questions and Answers : 50 Q&As
Update Time: 2010-12-04
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1. Which HP Systems Insight Manager pull-down menu do you use to add licenses to the environment?
A. Deploy
B. Configure
C. Options
D. Tools
Answer: A
2. In addition to a server deployment platform, what are other requirements for physical provisioning using Insight Dynamics infrastructure orchestration functionality? (Select two.)
A. availability start and stop dates in the IO calendar
B. operating system templates
C. VC Domain groups on VCEM
D. SAN-backed storage created
E. Failsafe setting enabled on primary group
Answer: CD
3. Which HP Insight product is included with most G6 and later ProLiant servers?
A. Insight Dynamics
B. Insight Control
C. Insight Foundation
D. Insight Control for Linux
Answer: C
Hot Exam:
220-701 CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009)
2010年12月2日 星期四
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1. When talking to a CEO about service availability, which feature of HP Storage Essentials SRM should be positioned by the consultant?
A. SRM solutions are designed on the SMI-S industry standard for storage network management.
B. Big-picture view monitors and reports on a variety of business applications.
C. Big-picture visualization automatically discovers and maps the storage network.
D. SRM monitors utilization of the host, switch, and array.
Answer: B
2. A potential customer is experiencing massive data growth in the past year and is no longer meeting their backup window. The customer's current environment consists of approximately 30 ProLiant servers utilizing Backup Exec and a SCSI attached LTO2 autoloader.
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What should the consultant recommend to the customer for a smooth transition to the new equipment? (Select two.)
A. hands-on training during implementation
B. handover session after the installation
C. formal classroom training on the new products
D. as-built configuration documentation
E. solution presentation
Answer: AC
3. for application disaster recovery, which type of local replication permits rapid recovery of applications?
A. capacity free snapshot
B. snapclone
C. consistency group snap
D. traditional snapshot
Answer: B
4. A customer has Microsoft clusters presenting multiple TB of data as file services. The customer is looking for a technology approach to simplify the data lifecycle management of that large amount of data.
Which HP Storage Essentials SRM tool would help the customer to quickly identify disk space that can be recycled, pinpoint critical files that should be replicated, and more accurately implement Information Management initiatives?
A. Backup Manager
B. NAS Manager
C. File System Viewer
D. Provisioning Manager
Answer: C
5. Which encryption type is used for securing data in transit over IP networks?
A. Advanced Encryption Standard
B. Internet protocol security
C. crypto processing engine
D. Storage Media Encryption
Answer: B
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1. When talking to a CEO about service availability, which feature of HP Storage Essentials SRM should be positioned by the consultant?
A. SRM solutions are designed on the SMI-S industry standard for storage network management.
B. Big-picture view monitors and reports on a variety of business applications.
C. Big-picture visualization automatically discovers and maps the storage network.
D. SRM monitors utilization of the host, switch, and array.
Answer: B
2. A potential customer is experiencing massive data growth in the past year and is no longer meeting their backup window. The customer's current environment consists of approximately 30 ProLiant servers utilizing Backup Exec and a SCSI attached LTO2 autoloader.
After a number of meetings, the consultant presents the design of a D2D4112, an MSL8096 with HP Data Protector. The customer likes the solution, but is concerned about how their staff will cope with the new concepts and the transition to the new solution.
What should the consultant recommend to the customer for a smooth transition to the new equipment? (Select two.)
A. hands-on training during implementation
B. handover session after the installation
C. formal classroom training on the new products
D. as-built configuration documentation
E. solution presentation
Answer: AC
3. for application disaster recovery, which type of local replication permits rapid recovery of applications?
A. capacity free snapshot
B. snapclone
C. consistency group snap
D. traditional snapshot
Answer: B
4. A customer has Microsoft clusters presenting multiple TB of data as file services. The customer is looking for a technology approach to simplify the data lifecycle management of that large amount of data.
Which HP Storage Essentials SRM tool would help the customer to quickly identify disk space that can be recycled, pinpoint critical files that should be replicated, and more accurately implement Information Management initiatives?
A. Backup Manager
B. NAS Manager
C. File System Viewer
D. Provisioning Manager
Answer: C
5. Which encryption type is used for securing data in transit over IP networks?
A. Advanced Encryption Standard
B. Internet protocol security
C. crypto processing engine
D. Storage Media Encryption
Answer: B
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1. Which interconnects come bundled with the BladeSystem Matrix Starter Kit? (Select two.)
A. a single VC Flex-10 ethernet module
B. a redundant pair of VC Flex-10 ethernet modules
C. a single VC 8GB 24-Port FC module
D. a redundant pair of VC 8GB 24-Port FC modules
E. a single VC 4GB 24-Port FC module
F. a redundant pair of VC 4GB 24-Port FC modules
Answer: BD
2. What costs are represented in the Cost window in Insight Orchestration Designer? (Select three.)
A. IP addresses
B. administrative overhead
C. storage
D. servers
E. applications
F. power
Answer: ACD
3. How many c-Class blade enclosures are manageable when running HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager 2.0 or later?
A. 250
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 4096
Answer: B
4. What does the customer gain by using Virtual Connect Flex-10 in combination with G6 blades?
A. N_Port ID Virtualization functionality
B. eight FlexNIC connections of 10Gb/s each
C. four FlexNIC sharing each 10Gb connection
D. server network and storage connection migration across enclosures
Answer: C
5. Where is the Insight Software performance management data sample rate changed?
A. HP Insight Control
B. HP Insight Dynamics
C. HP Management Agents
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: C
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1. Which interconnects come bundled with the BladeSystem Matrix Starter Kit? (Select two.)
A. a single VC Flex-10 ethernet module
B. a redundant pair of VC Flex-10 ethernet modules
C. a single VC 8GB 24-Port FC module
D. a redundant pair of VC 8GB 24-Port FC modules
E. a single VC 4GB 24-Port FC module
F. a redundant pair of VC 4GB 24-Port FC modules
Answer: BD
2. What costs are represented in the Cost window in Insight Orchestration Designer? (Select three.)
A. IP addresses
B. administrative overhead
C. storage
D. servers
E. applications
F. power
Answer: ACD
3. How many c-Class blade enclosures are manageable when running HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager 2.0 or later?
A. 250
B. 1000
C. 2000
D. 4096
Answer: B
4. What does the customer gain by using Virtual Connect Flex-10 in combination with G6 blades?
A. N_Port ID Virtualization functionality
B. eight FlexNIC connections of 10Gb/s each
C. four FlexNIC sharing each 10Gb connection
D. server network and storage connection migration across enclosures
Answer: C
5. Where is the Insight Software performance management data sample rate changed?
A. HP Insight Control
B. HP Insight Dynamics
C. HP Management Agents
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: C
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1. Which EVA solution provides the best level of site disaster tolerance?
A. Snapclone
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Replication Solutions Manager
Answer: C
2. What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A
3. How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C
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1. Which EVA solution provides the best level of site disaster tolerance?
A. Snapclone
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Replication Solutions Manager
Answer: C
2. What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A
3. How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C
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1. Which EVA solution provides the best level of site disaster tolerance?
A. Snapclone
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Replication Solutions Manager
Answer: C
2. What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A
3. How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C
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1. Which EVA solution provides the best level of site disaster tolerance?
A. Snapclone
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Replication Solutions Manager
Answer: C
2. What does the Dynamic Capacity Management (DCM) of an EVA storage system provide?
A. maximum capacity utilization to the EVA
B. load balancing on the host ports of an EVA
C. optimized bandwidth utilization during replication
D. minimized space requirement during rebuild operation
Answer: A
3. How does the name of an uninitialized system show in Command View EVA?
A. serial number
B. uninitialized system
C. WWN of the storage system
D. WWN of FFFF-FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
Answer: C
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